johnj Posted September 26, 2010 Share Posted September 26, 2010 The Teaching and Research section of www.abouttheway.org has two articles that address VPW's "creative" interpretation of John 1, as well as others that address the nature of Jesus Christ. While the Greek text of John 1: 1-3 has only 36 words and the KJV uses 42, Wierwille's "literal translation according to usage" contains 91. Why did VP need so many more words than God did? (Because VP didn't like the way John 1 reads, and wanted to change it...) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cara Posted September 30, 2010 Share Posted September 30, 2010 Thank you very much, socks, sunesis, et al. That was very helpful - useful and beautiful. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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cara
Thank you very much, socks, sunesis, et al. That was very helpful - useful and beautiful.
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