teachmevp Posted July 30, 2010 Share Posted July 30, 2010 (edited) The way has got the meaning of that life, in that verse, wrong? That life, is the life that Yeshua got, when Yahweh raised Yeshua from among the dead? The world is not going to go for this meaning of life, their is no believing for things now, according to the way's teaching, I mean, VeePee knew to use spirit in his con job, his con, comparing the world to his abundant life, the life Yeshua got, should have been taught? 1 John 1:1-3; they seen and touched Yeshua's spirit life, not? Grammer of the Greek New Testament in Light of Historical Research, by A.T. Robertson; the meaning of that word life, was change according to this man's research, and many other interesting meanings of words that were changed, VeePee knew where the money was, abundant life now, using the spirit con? A lot of good people just taught me VeePee's con, maybe Yahweh knew some day, that somebody would see through VeePee's con of a abundant life for himself, and teach that abundant life Yeshua got, and we can get too; beware of the spirit con? The thief comes not, except for to steal, and to kill, and to destroy, VeePee, that groovy heart would have ate the true meaning of that life up, in them days, but VeePee had to use the world con, for his abundant life con? Edited July 30, 2010 by teachmevp 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
teachmevp Posted August 29, 2010 Author Share Posted August 29, 2010 I learning that the life in John 10:10, in which Yeshua was to have in John 5:26 is a noun; but why is that life taught as a verb? Can a verb be a noun? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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teachmevp
I learning that the life in John 10:10, in which Yeshua was to have in John 5:26
is a noun; but why is that life taught as a verb? Can a verb be a noun?
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